Pre-Tachyarrhythmia Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• When is electrical cardioversion indicated for atrial fibrillation?
• Which implant site is associated with a potentially inferior shock vector?
• What device is implanted for prevention of sudden cardiac death in high-risk patients?
• Which antiarrhythmic class is often preferred for rhythm control in patients with structural heart disease?
• Which statement about IEGM storage capabilities is correct for older vs current ICDs?
• In ventricular tachycardia, the QRS complex is typically what?
• Describe what is meant by 'Hot Can'
• Which programmable parameter could help address intermittent lead noise?
• What does a mark on the marker chain tell you?
• On an unstable interval with rate-only detection, the counter in newer devices decreases by how much?
• In older devices, the unstable interval counter is reset to zero.
• What is the volume of the current DR-T ICD expressed in cubic centimeters?
• If amiodarone is contraindicated for wide-complex tachycardia with a pulse, what is an appropriate alternative?
• What is the recommended ACLS approach for a pulseless ventricular tachycardia arrest?
• During tachyarrhythmias, how are cardiac output and filling time affected?
• Name two major contraindications to adenosine use.
• In an ICD, what type of counter is used for VT detection?
• Onset discriminates VT from which rhythm?
• BIOTRONIK impedance monitoring includes averaging daily impedances and reporting trends.
• In ventricular tachycardia, what is a fusion beat?
• Describe termination for a monitoring zone episode.
• How are the upper and lower thresholds configured?
• What is the best way to reduce the amplitude of a T wave?
• Which term describes the energy delivery when charging completes prior to a shock?
• Where does the pullback distance refer to?
• When is enhanced VF sensitivity useful?
• How does decompensated heart failure influence antiarrhythmic choices?
• What does the term 'shock vector' refer to in Biotronik ICD terminology?
• What is the route of administration for adenosine when terminating AVNRT or AVRT?
• The Tilt values used in Biotronik's Biphasic 2 waveform are what?
• What is another name for the feature used to induce AFib on the programmer, as described in this context?
• Which discriminant differentiates VT from SVT?
• Which scoring system guides decisions regarding long-term anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation?
• What is the key difference between cardioversion and defibrillation?
• How should beta-blockers be chosen in patients with COPD or asthma?
• If the initial adenosine 6 mg dose does not terminate AVNRT/AVRT, what is the next recommended dose?
• When should you suggest using a bi-phasic 2 shock waveform?
• How often is Auto Cap Reform performed in the current device?
• Which discriminant helps distinguish VT from AF with rapid ventricular response?
• Name two electrolyte disturbances that predispose to torsades de pointes.
• Which statement describes the role of amiodarone in tachyarrhythmias with structural heart disease?
• Which two drug classes are first-line for rate control in stable atrial fibrillation with preserved LV function?
• How many categories are used to classify IEGM storage in current ICDs?
• Which statement best describes how the upper threshold is used?
• Which intervention is aimed at eliminating the arrhythmogenic substrate in scar-related ventricular tachycardia?
• Which device model is the Rivacor DR-T described as in the source material?
• In ventricular tachycardia, what best describes a capture beat?
• It is possible to have a stored IEGM without detection. True or False?
• A shock output of _______ is considered an adequate safety margin for a programmed shock.
• What is the very last thing you do when implanting or performing a follow-up with a patient?
• Which ECG clues suggest ventricular tachycardia in a patient with prior myocardial infarction?
• What action is needed to display the surface on the program screen?
• Which feature is essential for a reentrant tachycardia circuit?
• It is possible to cardiovert AFib during a DFT. True or False?
• Which description matches Biotronik's Biphasic 2 shock waveform configuration?
• ATP works best on what type of arrhythmia?
• What is the Far-Field IEGM vector?
• What test or finding helps stratify risk for sudden death in tachyarrhythmia patients?
• What is the standard initial amiodarone regimen for acute ventricular tachycardia?
• During the initial noise interval, which statement is true?
• The bi-phasic waveform in Biotronik devices uses a tilt of ______ / ______ %
• What is the typical atrial rate in atrial flutter?
• Which nonpharmacologic strategy is commonly used to reduce arrhythmic burden in electrical storm?
• Compared to Biphasic 1, the second step of Biotronik's Biphasic 2 waveform has shorter duration.
• Left atrial appendage closure devices are primarily used as
• How should cardioversion be approached in AF patients with contraindication to long-term anticoagulation?
• Which imaging modality is used to assess left atrial thrombus prior to atrial fibrillation cardioversion?
• Which class IC antiarrhythmic drugs should be avoided in patients with structural heart disease?
• Biotronik uses which type of bipolar leads?
• How does structural heart disease affect the choice of antiarrhythmic therapy?
• Which of the following is a Class I indication for primary prevention ICD?
• What is the classic ECG appearance of atrial flutter?
• Adenosine is not effective for termination in which condition?
• In Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, what is the preferred curative treatment for tachyarrhythmias?
• What is the initiation requirement for dofetilide therapy?
• What is the most common cause of inappropriate ICD therapy?
• In pediatric patients with stable SVT, what is the preferred initial management?
• Which option is NOT a therapy available in the current ICD?
• Shorter pullback distance typically gives what?
• Main job of upper threshold and upper threshold duration is:
• In electrophysiology testing, which feature on the programmer is used to induce atrial fibrillation?
• What is the recommended immediate management for a patient with a hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmia?
• If the minimum threshold changes from 0.8 mV to 1.2 mV, has the device become less sensitive if nothing else changes?
• Which action enables therapy on the device during implant/follow-up?
• Biotronik ICD charges for up to 20 seconds before delivering a shock; what occurs at the end of this period?
• Which lead connection standard is commonly used for modern implantable defibrillators (combining pacing and shocking connections into a single header)?
• List the weight and volume of the current DR-T ICD.
• How can digoxin toxicity contribute to tachyarrhythmias, and how should it be managed?
• Which of the following is NOT a sensitivity pre-set option in the current DC ICD?
• In progressive therapy, how does shock delivery within an episode change?
• Why should you always hook up to surface ECG rather than relying solely on the FF-IEGM?
• If a stimulus reaches the excitable gap during a reentrant loop, what is the consequence?
• Which statement correctly describes the use of magnesium in torsades de pointes?
• Which antiarrhythmic drugs are known to prolong the QT interval and carry a risk of torsades de pointes?
• Why must rate-control medications be used with caution in patients with reduced LV function?
• In the ATP screen The R-S1 interval is commonly referred to as the _________ interval
• Among the listed factors, which is not a major contributor to the 'perfect squeeze'?
• In a reentrant circuit, what is the key usefulness of the excitable gap?
• Which statement best describes the excitable gap in a reentrant circuit?
• In general recognizing patterns is more important than morphology on the far field. T/F?
• Which criteria must be met for ATP one-shot therapy to be delivered?
• How does junctional tachycardia typically present on an ECG?
• In implantable cardioverter-defibrillator therapy, which statement best describes the difference between primary and secondary prevention?
• Which description best defines the excitable gap in a reentrant circuit?
• In which tachyarrhythmias are adenosine most reliably effective for termination?
• The major contributor to a 'perfect squeeze' is which component?
• In a shock box configuration, what energy is delivered across the board?
• A VF zone duration count must be at least ____/______ for early ATP to be programmable.
• What is the pediatric dosing for an initial adenosine bolus?
• In a stable patient with a narrow-complex tachycardia, which nonpharmacologic maneuver can be attempted first?
• Which ECG clues suggest ventricular tachycardia in a patient with structural heart disease?
• Why should class IC antiarrhythmics be avoided in patients with structural heart disease?
• What is the common procedural treatment option for AVNRT?
• In a reentrant circuit, what is the excitable gap?
• Release code 1655 provides which capability?
• Which statement is true about stimulation during the excitable gap in a reentrant circuit?
• Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in decompensated heart failure?
• When configuring a dual shock coil with a 'hot can' in Biotronik, the SVC coil polarity is
• Which statement describes dedicated bipolar leads?
• Which intervention is synchronized to the cardiac cycle when treating a hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmia?
• What waveform type is used in the defibrillators?
• In an ICD, what type of counter is used for VT redetection?
• In electrical storm management, what nonpharmacologic measure may help reduce sympathetic drive?
• Which statement is true about threshold programming?
• What ECG pattern is typical of Brugada syndrome?
• Which statement describes integrated bipolar leads?
• Once onset is declared for initial detection it will be reset on a redetection in the same episode. True/False?
• Termination is ______ out of ______ slow beats.
• Which lead will give you an unbiased view?
• What is the weight of the current DR-T ICD expressed in grams?
• Which term best identifies the feature on the programmer that is used to initiate atrial fibrillation in testing?
• What does off-label use mean in medical practice?
• What is a typical rate range for junctional tachycardia?
• Name two inherited tachyarrhythmia syndromes associated with sudden cardiac death.
• In a wide-complex tachycardia with a pulse where ventricular tachycardia is suspected, what is a reasonable first-line drug?
• Which statement about rate control in atrial fibrillation with preserved LV function is correct?
• After successful cardioversion for atrial fibrillation, what is a key anticoagulation consideration?
• The vast majority of arrhythmias detected in the VF zone are actually VT. True/False?
• What are the two things that occur during the initial noise interval?
• In older devices prior to Ilivia, the storage capacity is 24 minutes of 3-channel storage or 32 minutes of 2-channel storage.
• Which of the following statements about pacing-termination strategies is most accurate?
• What is the term to describe the polarity switch on a biphasic waveform?
• Which of the following statements accurately describes stimulation during the excitable gap of a reentrant circuit?
• Which statement best describes the ECG comparison between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?
• In ICD shock vectors, which configuration is described as RV coil to SVC?
• BIOTRONIK dual coil ICD leads inter-coil spacing options?
• Current BIOTRONIK ICDs: Which statement is NOT true?
• A wand placed over the Lumax 540 ICD during follow-up can cause which of the following worst-case outcomes?
• Which is a Class I indication for secondary prevention ICD?
• A secondary prevention ICD indication includes: syncope plus inducible VT/VF during EP study.
• What is a typical long-term outcome after catheter ablation of an accessory pathway in WPW–mediated tachycardias?
• Why is atrial fibrillation with Wolff-Parkinson-White pattern considered high risk for sudden death?
• For BIOTRONIK dual coil ICD leads, the inter-coil spacing range is what?
• Which example constitutes an improper claim about a medical product?
• Which therapies are available in the current ICD?
• Which statement correctly expresses why FF-IEGM should not be used alone for interpretation?
• What is the second-dose adenosine amount after the first dose in pediatric dosing?
• In the current ICDs it is possible to program a dual coil shock vector on a single coil lead.
• Which statement best describes integrated bipolar leads' performance relative to dedicated leads?
• An X/Y algorithm is used in all of these functions EXCEPT:
• Stability discriminates VT from which rhythm?
• Which option on the programmer is used to induce AFib, according to the standard terminology in this context?
• Which statement is true about BIOTRONIK impedance monitoring?
• In the current ICD, what type of counter is used for initial VT detection?
• Which setting results in an uncommitted shock?
• Post–myocardial infarction timing and ejection fraction criteria for primary prevention ICD include LVEF ≤ 30% at 40 days post-MI.
• Is it possible to program a shock vector on the DX that could cause exit block and possible death?
• In what screen is atrial cardioversion performed when done through the device?
• Which statement best describes the primary purpose of the Atr NIPS feature on the programmer in this context?
• Outside of testing, two shocks can be aborted in the same episode.
• What is the total IEGM storage for the current ICD?
• In scar-related ventricular tachycardia, what is a key management strategy?
• When is it appropriate to discuss off-label use with a patient?
• What is the construction type on an ICD lead?
• What is the difference between "confirmation ON" and "confirmation OFF" in shock delivery?
• What are contraindications to carotid sinus massage?
• Pacing the right atrium using atrial dipoles through a DX system requires release code 1655.
• In the CURRENT ICD, the shock waveform can be programmed differently in each active zone.
• Which of the following are class IA antiarrhythmic drugs?
• Which feature allows BIOTRONIK to alert clinicians when lead impedances exceed a range?
• When programmed to maximum energy shock therapy, the Rivacor DR-T delivers what value?
• Which of the following is a major long-term adverse effect associated with amiodarone?
• Which event would be shown on the marker chain of an IEGM recording?
• Which statement about rhythm control in patients with structural heart disease is true?
• What event has to occur between therapies in an episode?
• In the current ICD, progressive course of therapy ensures that...
• Which of the following is NOT known to prolong the QT interval and carry a risk of torsades de pointes?
• How can tachyarrhythmias be managed with pacing?
• R waves are consistently measured at what amplitude through the device?
• Which statement best describes the Far-Field IEGM vector?
• Which electrolytes should be corrected to prevent and manage tachyarrhythmias?
• In Brugada syndrome, which medication class is generally avoided because it can exacerbate conduction abnormalities?
• Regarding the diagnostic DX system, which statement is correct?
• Name two inherited tachyarrhythmia syndromes associated with sudden cardiac death.
• Which test is commonly used to assess left atrial thrombus before cardioversion of atrial fibrillation?
• It is possible to program the current ICD to deliver a train of ATP to an arrhythmia detected in the VF zone.
• What was the name of the studies that showed VT given enough time has a high probability of self termination?
• In terms of tissue readiness, how is the excitable gap best described?
• What is the acute treatment for torsades de pointes?
• Describe what is meant by a shock box.
• Define pullback: spacing between the tip and distal end of the RV coil.
• What is the initial pharmacologic dose of adenosine for terminating a stable AVNRT or AVRT?
• Which ECG finding most strongly suggests ventricular tachycardia over a supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction?
• What is the usefulness of the excitable gap in a reentrant circuit?